Prohibition of Cooking Meat and Milk Due to Absorption in Utensils

This question and answer were automatically translated using our trained AI and have not yet been reviewed by a qualified rabbi. Please treat this translation with caution.
go to original →

Question

I am visiting my grandfather who does not observe Torah and mitzvot, and my grandfather asked me to boil a pot with meat (and if I do not boil it, he will get up to boil it himself), and I am concerned that my grandfather cooked dairy in it today. Is there a prohibition of cooking meat with milk in this case?

Answer

In a case of necessity, one can be lenient.

And if non-kosher meat is being cooked there (may God have mercy), it is certainly permissible to boil it for him, since there is no prohibition of cooking meat with milk in non-kosher meat. (And there is no prohibition of "placing a stumbling block before the blind" because if you do not boil it for him, he will get up and boil it himself).

Source

The Rema wrote in Yoreh De'ah, Siman 87, Sif 6, as follows: "Some say it is forbidden to stoke the fire under a non-Jew's pot, because they sometimes cook dairy and sometimes meat in them, and stoking the fire under their pot leads to cooking meat with milk (Mordechai's gloss on Perek HaTzelamim).

The Shach there, S.K. 18, wrote: "In Mordechai it is written that it is forbidden to cook forbidden meat in a Jew's house in a non-Jew's pot, lest the Jew stoke the fire, etc., therefore, non-Jewish maidservants need to have two pots: one for meat and one for milk. So ruled in T"H at the end of Klal 76. However, meat is not specific, the same applies to other things, as it is only a stringency, and the world is not careful about this.

In Ba'er Heitev, it is written that the end of Shach's words, where he writes that the world is not careful about this, does not refer to the stringency of the Rema, but to what he wrote that one should be stringent that the maidservant should have a pot for meat and a pot for milk. However, the Pri Megadim there wrote that the Shach holds there is no prohibition of cooking meat with milk in absorption, and therefore the stringency of the Rema is not practiced.

Rabbi Akiva Eiger there added a reasoning to permit because it is a doubtful "psik reisha" in the past. See there.

Comments

Have an additional question on this topic or need clarification? Leave your comment below. (Please note that the comment will not be published but will be sent directly to the answering Rabbi for review and a private response)

Please sign up or log in to submit your comment

Become our patrners in supporting and spreading the Torah
Help us answer more questions faster and better
Join the mission
More questions in this category